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If we do not know the name of the father of a child, e.g. a foundling, an illegitimate, etc., then to whom should the bin or the binti of the child's name be applied?

09.06.2025 02:08

If we do not know the name of the father of a child, e.g. a foundling, an illegitimate, etc., then to whom should the bin or the binti of the child's name be applied?

SO there you have it. The name should be applied to the adoptee or any name the child chooses. What else would make sense? Except adoption is not allowed in Islam except for the countries that choose to not allow a man to marry his daughter in law, correct? Not all muslim countries ban adoption as per the quran and Allah’s word. In my country, only Muslims can adopt muslim orphans. But Muslims can adopt any child. Sound fair? Welcome to Islam.

I am assuming if you ask about bin and binti then you must ask from a Muslim perspective. Despite Islam hardly being universal, Muslims have been known to impose this on other cultures too. Indian immigrants and indigenous people, who are citizens have to put a ‘son of’ or ‘daughter of’ into their respective LEGAL names despite it not being the norm of the people involved. Strangely white people and Chinese born here are not forced to do the same. You figure it out.

If you do not know, it only means one thing. A bastard and his parents are not treated well in that society becuase they feel they have the right to inflict pain and heap insults on those involved. Poor mother has no place to run. If you are naming the child, it means the mother ran away too. Crap.

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But lets look at the precedents.

Or Jesus ben Miriam.

Any questions?

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Anyway, that really depends on the law of the land, the superstition of the child or the authorities.

SO what should be their names? Muhammad bin Amina and Ismail bin Hajar. Not calling them that would be an insult to Isa bin Mariam.… who is fictional anyway. No such person with the family duly decribed in the Quran (the Imranites) ever existed.

But that was not his name. Ever. He was never named that by the people entitled to name him. His parents.

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Is there any other situation where Allah was empowered and authorised to rename a duly named child, dog, ship, plane, house or pig? No. So why? Muslim superstition say that Jesus is the Spirit of God and a Word of God SENT DOWN into Mary. They believe He is still alive. They believe that although he was sent down, no Muslim ever talks about where he was sent down from or wheter the Word of God existed before man. To Muslims, is a man without a father. Techinically, that means his name should be Jesus bin Allah, given that Allah supplied the imetus, but never mind.

All Muslims know this to be the name of Jesus. It is thus written in the inerrant book of Allah, the Quran- the only book in existence written by a deity.

No Jew couple names their child after the mother. The race follows the mother, yes, but not the surname. So what was his name? Yehoshua ben Yosef. Jesus bin Yusoff would be his name. Who changed it? Allah and Muslims.

When was the first time your wife had beastiality?

Isa bin Maryam.

SO there you have it. Custom also has it that if a child is born, and the father is unknown, or already stoned or missing in action, then we punish the mother and give the child the mother’s name. Like in Jesus’ case, the person Muslims love so much. There are other parallels, for instance where the father was long gone before the conception of the child or was not the duly wed husband or it was an act of conception outside of the bed of nikah. IN this instance it is clear in Islamic custom that the child inherits after the mother. Her property and name. The child has no claim against the father. No maintenance, no schooling, no clothes. That is why Zakir Naik insists one can have sex with goats and marry your illegitimate daughter in law. You go figure it out. Do your research. Recently in one islamic state in a moderate muslim country, the Islamic political party tabled an enactment that decriminalizes lesbian sex, bestiality and necrophilia. One guess as to what inspired this. The enactment also forbade sodomy amongst married couples. Apparently this is a problem.

So back to the present. Do we have precedents? Yes, Muhammad’s father died long before his conception. Ishmael’s father was not married to his mother, his mother being what belonged to his wife’s right hand (a SLAVE).

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